According to this: http://blueink.com/CLASS/physcom1/gear.htm (third gray passage) if i multiply the RPMs by the gear ration (3.55) it will give me the amount of torque to the rear, OF COURSE keeping in mind that there is still 20%+ loss through the drivetrain...

My point is... if i divide the torque thats at the rear (323) by the gear ratio (3.55:1) it should equal the amount of torque at every rotation from the drive shaft (90.98). Than we multiply 90.98 by the new gear ratio of 4.10 and the new torque should come out to be 373.

323tq/3.55=90.98
90.98x4.10=373

The way that i verified this was by multiplying 90.98 times double the amount of the stock gear ratio being 7.1 and it came out to be double the amount of the original torque, 645. but rather than multiplying by double the amount of the stock ratio again, I multiplied by 4.10... if i keep increasing the gears numbers i will eventually hit the double amount of torque (645)provided by doubling the stock gear ratio (7.1) again.

does this seem correct or I'm i trying to pull an Archimedes and it aint working ?